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Now iffany man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his. But if Christ be in you, the body is dead, because of sin, but the spirit is life because of righteousness. But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, He that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit which dwelleth in you. Therefore, brethren, we are debtors, not to the flesh, to live after the flesh. For if ye live after the flesh, ye shall die; but if ye through the Spirit do mortify the deeds of the body, ye shall live. For as many as are led by the Spirit of God, they are the Sons of God," Verse 9 ---14. Is there one word here, is there any the least intimation of miraculous gifts, or of the Jewish law? It follows, "For ye have not received the spirit of bondage again, to fear, (such as all sinners have, when they are first stirred up to seek God, and begin to serve him from a slavish fear of punishment ;) but ye have received the Spirit of adoption (of free love) whereby we cry, Abba, Father. The Spirit itself (which God hath sent forth into our hearts, crying, Abba, Father,) beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God." Verse 15, 16.

I am now willing to leave it, without farther comment, to the judgment of every impartial reader, whether it does not appear from the whole scope and tenor of the text and context taken together, that this passage does not refer to the Jewish law, and to the public testimony of miracles: neither of which can be dragged in, without putting the utmost force on the natural meaning of the words. And if so, it will follow, that this witness of the Spirit is the private testimony given to our own consciences; which, consequently, all sober Christians may claim, without any danger of enthusiasm.

11. "But I go on" (says your Lordship, page 21,) "to the consideration of the other passages in the same chapter, relating to our praying by the Spirit, namely at ́verse 26. and 27, which run thus, Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought; but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for

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us, with groanings which cannot be uttered. And he that searcheth the hearts, knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit, because he maketh intercession for the saints, according to the will of God."

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Here is a circumstance highly needful to be observed, before we enter upon this question. Your Lordship undertakes to fix the meaning of an expression used by St. Paul, in the fourteenth chapter of his first epistle to the Corinthians. And in order thereto, you laboriously explain part of the eighth chapter to the Romans. My Lord, how is this? Will it be said, "Why this is often alleged to prove the wrong sense of that scripture?" I conceive this willnot salve the matter at all. Your Lordship had before laid down a particular method, as the only sure one whereby to distinguish what scriptures belong to all christians, and what do not. This method is, the considering the occasion and scope of those passages, by comparing the text and context together. You then propose, by the use of this method, to shew, that several texts have been misapplied by Enthusiasts. One of these is the 15th verse of the 14th chapter of the first epistle to the Corinthians. And to shew, that Enthusiasts have misapplied this, you comment on the eighth chapter to the Romans!

However, let us weigh the comment itself. The material part of it begins thus: (p. 22.) "Now he adds another proof of the truth of Christianity : likewise the Spirit helpeth our infirmities (or our distresses, for Evas signifies both." I doubt that I require authority for it.) "And then he mentions, in what instances he does so, viz. In prayers to God about afflictions-" (In nothing else, my Lord? Did he help their infirmities, in no other instance than this?) "We know not, says he, what we should pray for as we ought. That is, whether it be best for us to bear afflictions, or to be delivered from them. But the Spirit, or the gift of the Spirit, instructs us how to pray in a manner agreeable to the will of God." The Spirit, or the gift of the Spirit! What marvellous reasoning is this! If these

"are often put for each other," what then? How is that evinced to be the case here?

12. "The Apostle goes on, The Spirit itself (p. 23,) maketh intercession for us, with groanings which cannot be uttered: that is, the spiritual or inspired person prayed in that capacity for the whole assembly." "That is!" Nay, that is again the very point to be proved, else we get not one step farther. "The Apostle goes on thus, verse 27, And he that (p. 24,) searcheth the hearts, knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit (that is, of the spiritual or inspired person) because he maketh intercession for the saints according to the Will of God. That is, God knows the intention of the spiritual person, who has the gift of prayer, which he uses for the benefit of the whole assembly; he, I say, leaves it entirely to God, whether it be best that they should suffer afflictions, or be delivered from them." Page 25.

My Lord, this is more astonishing than all the rest! I was expecting all along in reading the preceding pages (and so I suppose, was every thinking reader) when your Lordship would mention, that the person miraculously inspired for that intent, and praying xaтα OɛOV either for the support or deliverance of the people, should have the very petition which he asked of him. Whereas you intended no such thing! But shut up the whole with that lame and impotent conclusion, "He leaves it to God, whether it be best they should suffer afflictions, or be delivered from them." Had he then that miraculous gift of God, that he might do what any common christian might have done without it? Why, any person in the congregation might have prayed thus: nay, could not pray otherwise, if he had the ordinary grace of God: "Leaving it to God, whether he should suffer afflictions still, or be delivered from them!" Was it only in the Apostolical age, that "the Spirit instructed christians thus to pray?" Cannot a man pray thus, either for himself or others, unless he have the miraculous gift of prayer?---So, according to your Lordship's judgment, "To pray in such a manner as in the event to leave the continuance of our sufferings, or our deliverance from them, with

a due submission, to the good pleasure of God," is one of those "extraordinary operations of the Spirit," which none now pretend to but "modern Enthusiasts!"

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I beseech your Lordship to consider. Can you coolly maintain, that "the praying with a due submission to the Will of God," even in heavy affliction is a miraculous gift? An extraordinary operation of the Holy Ghost? Is this peculiar to the primitive times? Is it what none but Enthusiasts now pretend to? If not, then your Lordship's own account of praying by the Spirit indisputably proves, that this is one of the ordinary privileges of all christians, to the end of the world.

13. "I go on (your Lordship adds) to another passage of Scripture, that has been entirely (p. 27,) misapplied by modern Enthusiasts. 1 Cor. ii. 4, 5, And my speech and my 6 preaching were not with enticing words of man's wisdom, but in demonstration of the Spirit and of power; that your faith should not stand in the wisdom of man, but in the power of God.' (p. 29.) It is only necessary to evince, that by the demonstration of the Spirit and of power is meant the demonstration of the truth of Christianity, that arises from the prophecies of the Old Testament and the miracles of Christ and his Apostles." Yes, it is necessary farther to evince, that these words have no other meaning. But, first, How will you evince, that they bear this? In order thereto, your Lordship argues thus :

"The former seems to be the demonstration of the Spirit, with regard to the prophetical testimonies of him.---And the demonstration of power, must signify the power of God, exerted in miracles." (p. 30.) "Must;" Why so? That Suvas often signifies miraculous power, is allowed---But what follows? That it must mean so in this place? That still remains to be proved. Indeed your Lordship says, this "appears from the following verse, in which is assigned the reason for using this method of proving Christianity to be true, viz. That your faith should not stand in the wisdom of man, but in the power of God.' By "the power of God" therefore must necessarily be understood, the miracles per

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formed by Christ and his Apostles." By the illative particle, therefore, this proposition should be an inference from some other, but what other I cannot yet discern. So that, for the present, I can only look upon it, as a fresh instance of begging the question.

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"He goes on in the 7th, 10th, and following verses, to explain this demonstration of the Spirit and of power. But he does not say one syllable therein, either of the ancient prophecies, or of miracles. Nor will it be easily proved, that he speaks either of one or the other, from the beginning of the chapter to the end.

After transcribing the 13th verse, "Which things also we speak, not in the words which man's wisdom teacheth, but which the Holy Ghost teacheth, comparing spiritual things with spiritual," your Lordship adds, "From which last passage it appears, that the words which the Holy Ghost is said to teach, must be the prophetical revelations of the Old Testament, which were discovered to the Apostles by the same Spirit." I cannot apprehend how this appears. I cannot, as yet, see any connexion at all between the premises and the conclusion.

Upon the whole, I desire any calm and serious man, to read over this whole chapter; and then he will easily judge, what is the natural meaning of the words in question: and whether (although it be allowed, that they were peculiarly fulfilled in the Apostles, yet) they do not manifestly belong, in a lower sense, to every true minister of Christ. For what can be more undeniable than this, that our preaching also is vain, unless it be attended with the power of that Spirit, who alone pierceth the heart? And that your hearing is vain, unless the same power be present to heal your soul, and to give you a faith which standeth not in the wisdom of man, but in the power of God?

14. "Another passage that" (your Lordship thinks) "has been misapplied by enthusiasts, but was really peculiar to the times of the Apostles, is 1 John ii. 20, and 27, (p. 35,) "Ye have an unction from the Holy One, and ye know all things-But the anointing which ye have received of him VOL. XII.

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